[R] Why removing the (Intercept) from lm is done by adding -1?
mviljamaa at kapsi.fi
Wed Sep 21 16:19:42 CEST 2016
So I found out that to remove the (Intercept) term from lm's model one
can add -1 to the predictors. I.e. do lm(resp ~ x1 + x2 - 1)
Another way is to add 0, e.g. lm(resp ~ 0 + x1 + x2).
Adding (or setting the (Intercept) term) zero seems more logical than
subtracting one, but why is there the method of subtracting one? Why
does subtracting one mean that the (Intercept) term disappears?
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